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. This would be expected since in an X-linked recessive inheritance: males are predominantly affected; all their phenotypic healthy daughters are heterozygous; the mother of an affected male is heterozygous; among sons of heterozygous women, there is a 1:1 ratio between affected and unaffected; and one would only observe affected females if these were homozygous for the recessive allele

Do we need a new look in the definition of X-linked recessive disorders?